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Date: 30 Jan 2009 09:45:20
From: NB
Subject: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.




 
Date: 01 Feb 2009 17:25:08
From: NB
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 1:22=A0pm, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net > wrote:
> robin wrote:
> > On 30 Jan, 17:54, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >> On Jan 30, 12:46 pm, PeteWasLucky <Waleed.Kh...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> >>> On Jan 30, 12:45 pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
> >>>> Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.
> >>> Is there a rule that says so? links?
> >>> Wht can't the number #1 finish his matches easily?
> >> Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
> >> #2. =A0Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.
>
> > The #1 can play against the #15 instead of #16.
>
> I think NB stands for No Brains.

You are wrong, because you cannot think. They already said that the
AO is the only major where both semis are not played on the same day.


 
Date: 31 Jan 2009 00:40:19
From: Dave Hazelwood
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Fri, 30 Jan 2009 09:45:20 -0800 (PST), NB <nobuyout@gmail.com >
wrote:

>Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.


they figure he accumulates an extra day rest already adding up all his
match time violations


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 12:41:21
From:
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 7:34=A0pm, tennis41...@yahoo.com wrote:
> On Jan 30, 11:45=A0am, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.
>
> again.. circumstances and the those in charge of the schduling
> conspire against Rafa and give an advantage to Feddy... just like in
> Wimbledon '07.
>
> It's not random, there certainly are extraneous factors in play. The
> excuse that's coming from the Aus Open organizers is that they wanted
> Hewitt on Tuesday night... but he didn't even play the night session.

Why do they need an excuse for something they do every year?



 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 12:31:39
From: Wayne
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On 30 Jan, 20:12, "jdeluise" <jdelu...@gmail.com > wrote:
> On 30-Jan-2009, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net> wrote:
>
>
>
> > AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> > everyone is making a big deal of this.
>
> It is called looking for excuses early.

only if you believe that nadal won't be affected by this 5 hour match.


  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:48:57
From: Vari L. Cinicke
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Wayne wrote:
> On 30 Jan, 20:12, "jdeluise" <jdelu...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> On 30-Jan-2009, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net> wrote:
>>
>>
>>
>>> AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
>>> everyone is making a big deal of this.
>> It is called looking for excuses early.
>
> only if you believe that nadal won't be affected by this 5 hour match.

Of course the past has its effects.

Nadal may now believe that it is impossible to beat him and that he is
indestructible even after 5+ hours of play.

--
Cheers,

vc


  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:42:50
From: jdeluise
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?

On 30-Jan-2009, Wayne <waynetv50@yahoo.com > wrote:

> On 30 Jan, 20:12, "jdeluise" <jdelu...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > On 30-Jan-2009, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net> wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > > AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> > > everyone is making a big deal of this.
> >
> > It is called looking for excuses early.
>
> only if you believe that nadal won't be affected by this 5 hour match.

This is the way it is with tennis. Maybe Nadal should have thought about
ending the points a little earlier with Verdasco rather then being run
ragged around the court. No excuses if Nadal or Federer lose.


   
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:47:03
From: jdeluise
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?

On 30-Jan-2009, "jdeluise" <jdeluise@gmail.com > wrote:

> On 30-Jan-2009, Wayne <waynetv50@yahoo.com> wrote:
>
> > On 30 Jan, 20:12, "jdeluise" <jdelu...@gmail.com> wrote:
> > > On 30-Jan-2009, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net> wrote:
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > > > AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> > > > everyone is making a big deal of this.
> > >
> > > It is called looking for excuses early.
> >
> > only if you believe that nadal won't be affected by this 5 hour match.
>
> This is the way it is with tennis. Maybe Nadal should have thought about
> ending the points a little earlier with Verdasco rather then being run
> ragged around the court. No excuses if Nadal or Federer lose.

Of course one will have to win:)


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 12:31:14
From: Wayne
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On 30 Jan, 19:52, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net > wrote:

> If you make the SFs on the same day, then you end up with the US Open
> b2b days of playing the SF on day 13 and F on day 14 (which is stupid,
> IMHO). The alternative is to play both SF on day 12 and make the bigger
> gap for one half in a earlier round.

that would be a better way of doing it then wouldn't it?








  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:36:52
From: Vari L. Cinicke
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Wayne wrote:
> On 30 Jan, 19:52, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cini...@netscape.net> wrote:
>
>> If you make the SFs on the same day, then you end up with the US Open
>> b2b days of playing the SF on day 13 and F on day 14 (which is stupid,
>> IMHO). The alternative is to play both SF on day 12 and make the bigger
>> gap for one half in a earlier round.
>
> that would be a better way of doing it then wouldn't it?
>

rst'ers will just complain about a different thing.

Financial reasons are why they won't change from this current pattern
which still leaves 2 days between the last SF and F, just as in all
slams except the US Open.

So fairness is never in question. If they had a 1 day gap versus a 2 day
gap, it would be unfair.

--
Cheers,

vc


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 11:34:40
From:
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 11:45=A0am, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com > wrote:
> Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.

again.. circumstances and the those in charge of the schduling
conspire against Rafa and give an advantage to Feddy... just like in
Wimbledon '07.

It's not random, there certainly are extraneous factors in play. The
excuse that's coming from the Aus Open organizers is that they wanted
Hewitt on Tuesday night... but he didn't even play the night session.


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 11:26:50
From: Wayne
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On 30 Jan, 18:19, ajdevise <jirai...@gmail.com > wrote:
> Because it depends which part of the draw play first, and that is
> random. Fed played friday last year while he was no1, and Nadal
> thursday. Both lost so noone bitched about Novak having a day less
> than Tsonga.
>
> He has a day off, that's more than plenty enough. One part of the draw
> will always have an extra days rest since they begin first, that's
> just how it's always been.

There should be some way of ammending the schedule which is clearly
unfair to the player who plays second.


  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 19:52:54
From: Vari L. Cinicke
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Wayne wrote:
> On 30 Jan, 18:19, ajdevise <jirai...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> Because it depends which part of the draw play first, and that is
>> random. Fed played friday last year while he was no1, and Nadal
>> thursday. Both lost so noone bitched about Novak having a day less
>> than Tsonga.
>>
>> He has a day off, that's more than plenty enough. One part of the draw
>> will always have an extra days rest since they begin first, that's
>> just how it's always been.
>
> There should be some way of ammending the schedule which is clearly
> unfair to the player who plays second.

If the two halves start out playing on different days, there is no way
to have play on the final day without changing the gap somewhere in between.

1,3,5,7,9,11,14
2,4,6,8,10,12,14

AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
everyone is making a big deal of this.

If you make the SFs on the same day, then you end up with the US Open
b2b days of playing the SF on day 13 and F on day 14 (which is stupid,
IMHO). The alternative is to play both SF on day 12 and make the bigger
gap for one half in an earlier round.

I believe the AO chose their current play order for economic reasons.
This allows them to sell and additional session of tickets.

--
Cheers,

vc


   
Date: 31 Jan 2009 12:25:32
From: Petter Solbu
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Vari L. Cinicke wrote:

> If the two halves start out playing on different days, there is no way
> to have play on the final day without changing the gap somewhere in
> between.
>
> 1,3,5,7,9,11,14
> 2,4,6,8,10,12,14
>
> AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> everyone is making a big deal of this.
>
> If you make the SFs on the same day, then you end up with the US Open
> b2b days of playing the SF on day 13 and F on day 14 (which is stupid,
> IMHO). The alternative is to play both SF on day 12 and make the bigger
> gap for one half in an earlier round.

The latter is the best alternative, no question. Of course, Roddick and
Federer would have got one more day to prepare for their semifinal clash
than Nadal/Verdasco, but still I think that doesn't matter a whole lot.
It is approximately equal recovery time from QF to SF for both Roddick,
Federer, Nadal and Verdasco. And the recovery time from semifinal to
final is also almost equal.

So 1,3,5,7,9,12,14 and 2,4,6,8,10,12,14 is the best solution.

PS.


   
Date: 30 Jan 2009 15:34:11
From: Ted S.
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Fri, 30 Jan 2009 19:52:54 GMT, Vari L. Cinicke wrote:

> If the two halves start out playing on different days, there is no way
> to have play on the final day without changing the gap somewhere in
> between.
>
> 1,3,5,7,9,11,14 2,4,6,8,10,12,14
>
> AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> everyone is making a big deal of this.
>
> If you make the SFs on the same day, then you end up with the US Open
> b2b days of playing the SF on day 13 and F on day 14 (which is
> stupid, IMHO). The alternative is to play both SF on day 12 and make
> the bigger gap for one half in an earlier round.

The latter alternative is what the French Open and Wimbledon do.

Readers would do well to look up the "pigeonhole prinicple", which helps
explain why one half of the draw *has* to have an extra day at some
point.

By the same token, assuming the women's final is on Day 13, then the
half of the draw that starts on Day 2 *has* to play consecutive days at
some point. Obviously, it's not quite as big a deal for the women,
since they only play best of three sets.

--
Ted Schuerzinger
tedstennis at myrealbox dot com
If you're afraid of the ball, don't sit in the front row. --Anastasia
Rodionova


   
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:12:07
From: jdeluise
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?

On 30-Jan-2009, "Vari L. Cinicke" <cinicke@netscape.net > wrote:

>
> AO has 2 days between the 2nd SF and the Final. I have no idea why
> everyone is making a big deal of this.
>

It is called looking for excuses early.


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 10:19:22
From: ajdevise
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
Because it depends which part of the draw play first, and that is
random. Fed played friday last year while he was no1, and Nadal
thursday. Both lost so noone bitched about Novak having a day less
than Tsonga.

He has a day off, that's more than plenty enough. One part of the draw
will always have an extra days rest since they begin first, that's
just how it's always been.


  
Date: 31 Jan 2009 07:48:33
From: DavidW
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
ajdevise wrote:
> Because it depends which part of the draw play first, and that is
> random.

I don't think it's random. Usually the top half goes first. I wouldn't be
surprised if Federer was the reason it was different this year.

> Fed played friday last year while he was no1,

He asked for a Tuesday start last year because he was sick, and got it.

> and Nadal
> thursday. Both lost so noone bitched about Novak having a day less
> than Tsonga.
>
> He has a day off, that's more than plenty enough. One part of the draw
> will always have an extra days rest since they begin first, that's
> just how it's always been.

Yes, two days is usually considered sufficient rest, but doesn't take into
account rare cases like a 5-hour match. Three days might actually be too long a
break from playing matches.





   
Date: 30 Jan 2009 20:58:55
From: Vari L. Cinicke
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
DavidW wrote:
> ajdevise wrote:
>> Because it depends which part of the draw play first, and that is
>> random.
>
> I don't think it's random. Usually the top half goes first. I wouldn't be
> surprised if Federer was the reason it was different this year.
>
>> Fed played friday last year while he was no1,
>
> He asked for a Tuesday start last year because he was sick, and got it.
>
>> and Nadal
>> thursday. Both lost so noone bitched about Novak having a day less
>> than Tsonga.
>>
>> He has a day off, that's more than plenty enough. One part of the draw
>> will always have an extra days rest since they begin first, that's
>> just how it's always been.
>
> Yes, two days is usually considered sufficient rest, but doesn't take into
> account rare cases like a 5-hour match. Three days might actually be too long a
> break from playing matches.
>
>
>

Exactly. There is back spin, top spin and side spin.

--
Cheers,

vc


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 10:16:53
From: robin
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On 30 Jan, 17:54, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com > wrote:
> On Jan 30, 12:46=A0pm, PeteWasLucky <Waleed.Kh...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > On Jan 30, 12:45=A0pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > > Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.
>
> > Is there a rule that says so? links?
>
> > Wht can't the number #1 finish his matches easily?
>
> Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
> #2. =A0Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.

The #1 can play against the #15 instead of #16.


  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 18:22:56
From: Vari L. Cinicke
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
robin wrote:
> On 30 Jan, 17:54, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
>> On Jan 30, 12:46 pm, PeteWasLucky <Waleed.Kh...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>
>>> On Jan 30, 12:45 pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
>>>> Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.
>>> Is there a rule that says so? links?
>>> Wht can't the number #1 finish his matches easily?
>> Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
>> #2. Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.
>
> The #1 can play against the #15 instead of #16.

I think NB stands for No Brains.

--
Cheers,

vc


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 09:57:37
From:
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 12:45=A0pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com > wrote:
> Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.

itf, atp, ao organizers are all shameless fedfuckers. that is why.


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 09:54:59
From: NB
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 12:46=A0pm, PeteWasLucky <Waleed.Kh...@gmail.com > wrote:
> On Jan 30, 12:45=A0pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com> wrote:
>
> > Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.
>
> Is there a rule that says so? links?
>
> Wht can't the number #1 finish his matches easily?

Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
#2. Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.


  
Date: 30 Jan 2009 23:34:33
From: pltrgyst
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Fri, 30 Jan 2009 09:54:59 -0800 (PST), NB <nobuyout@gmail.com > wrote:

>Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
>#2. Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.

It used to be that way. Now everything is done by coin tosses -- which half (top
or bottom) of the draw #1 and #2 go into, and every other position after that.
So #1 can be drawn to either #15 or #16 (or, in a Grand Slam, #31 or #32).

Order of play is determined by top vs. bottom of the draw sheet.

-- Larry


   
Date: 31 Jan 2009 12:30:55
From: Petter Solbu
Subject: Rules for the draw [was: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of
pltrgyst wrote:
> On Fri, 30 Jan 2009 09:54:59 -0800 (PST), NB <nobuyout@gmail.com> wrote:
>
>> Common sense says the #1 player should get all the advantages over
>> #2. Otherwise you would have #1 play against #15 instead of #16.
>
> It used to be that way. Now everything is done by coin tosses -- which half (top
> or bottom) of the draw #1 and #2 go into, and every other position after that.
> So #1 can be drawn to either #15 or #16 (or, in a Grand Slam, #31 or #32).
>
> Order of play is determined by top vs. bottom of the draw sheet.

Are there any rules at all for the match-ups? I thought the only
principles were:
- Players #1 - #2 can not meet before the final
- Players #1 - #4 can not meet before the semifinal
- Players #1 - #8 can not meet before the quarterfinal
- Players #1 - #16 can not meet before the R16
- Players #1 - #32 can not meet before the R32

Are there any more rules??

PS.


 
Date: 30 Jan 2009 09:46:47
From: PeteWasLucky
Subject: Re: Why does the #1 seed get one less day of rest?
On Jan 30, 12:45=A0pm, NB <nobuy...@gmail.com > wrote:
> Nadal should have played yesterday and Fed today.

Is there a rule that says so? links?

Wht can't the number #1 finish his matches easily?